Bible
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4) How do you explain the fact that in the book of Proverbs, first it
is written: “Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like
unto him” (Proverbs 26:4) and immediately after: “Answer a fool according to
his folly, lest he be wise in his own conceit” (Proverbs 26:5)? |
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My explanation is this: there is a time when we must keep the former
command and a time when we must keep the latter. Therefore, we must
understand when we don’t have to answer a fool according to his folly, and
when instead we have to answer him according to his folly as he deserves. In
the latter case we have to answer him according to his folly lest he – who he
is wiser in his own eyes than seven men that answer discreetly (Proverbs
26:16) - deceive himself. |